The problem was to show that
$$e^x \ge 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \dots + \frac{x^n}{n!}$$
for all $x \ge 0$ and integer $n \ge 0$.
Solution
Let $f_{n}(x) = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \dots + \frac{x^n}{n!}$ with $f_{0}(x) = 1$
Now $e^x \ge f_{0}(x)$ for all $x \ge 0$
Now suppose $e^x \ge f_{n}(x)$ for all $x \ge 0$.
Let $h(x) = e^x - f_{n+1}(x)$
Now $h(0) = 0$.
We also have that the derivative of $h$, $h'(x) = e^x - f_n(x)$
By induction assumption $h'(x) \ge 0$ for all $x \ge 0$.
Thus $h$ is increasing and so $h(x) \ge h(0) = 0$ for all $x \ge 0$.
Thus by induction, we are done.
$$e^x \ge 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \dots + \frac{x^n}{n!}$$
for all $x \ge 0$ and integer $n \ge 0$.
Solution
Let $f_{n}(x) = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \dots + \frac{x^n}{n!}$ with $f_{0}(x) = 1$
Now $e^x \ge f_{0}(x)$ for all $x \ge 0$
Now suppose $e^x \ge f_{n}(x)$ for all $x \ge 0$.
Let $h(x) = e^x - f_{n+1}(x)$
Now $h(0) = 0$.
We also have that the derivative of $h$, $h'(x) = e^x - f_n(x)$
By induction assumption $h'(x) \ge 0$ for all $x \ge 0$.
Thus $h$ is increasing and so $h(x) \ge h(0) = 0$ for all $x \ge 0$.
Thus by induction, we are done.
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