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Monday, May 9, 2016

exp(x) inequality [Solution]

The problem was to show that

ex1+x+x22!++xnn!

for all x0 and integer n0.

Solution



Let fn(x)=1+x+x22!++xnn! with f0(x)=1

Now exf0(x) for all x0

Now suppose exfn(x) for all x0.

Let h(x)=exfn+1(x)

Now h(0)=0.

We also have that the derivative of h, h(x)=exfn(x)

By induction assumption h(x)0 for all x0.

Thus h is increasing and so h(x)h(0)=0 for all x0.

Thus by induction, we are done.

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