Nice defense by Rajendra Gokhale

This hand occurred at a local tournament in Pune, India.

The defense was made by Rajendra Gokhale (rvg), who has won the premier teams event in the 2018 Indian nationals.

You hold J9x, Txx, Axx, JT8x and opponents reach 4S by the following auction. LHO being the dealer:

1NT - 2C
2H - 2S
4S

You choose to lead the J of clubs and see

IMPS None
West ♠ Qxxx ♥ AKxx ♦ T ♣ AQ9x
	South ♠ J9x ♥ Txx ♦ Axx ♣ JT8x

W	N	E	S
1NT	P	2C	P
2H	P	2S	P
4S	P	P	P

Declarer wins the A, with partner discouraging and runs the DT to your A.

You win and play a heart. Declarer wins the HA, cashes the HK and ruffs a heart. Declarer then plays the DQ pitching the last heart from dummy. Partner wins the K and returns a club which declarer wins the 9 dummy and plays a spade to the K winning.


At this point, defense has won 2 tricks (DA and DK) and partner needs to have the SA to have any chance. Even then, where is the 4th trick coming from?

Declarer is going to duck a spade to drop partner's A and that will be end of defense. What will you do?



When declarer played a spade towards the Q, rvg put up the Jack! Declarer covered with the Q which was won by partner's A. Partner now played the last heart to promote the S9 for the setting trick.

Nice defense!

Textbook 6H

This is a hand from the intra google bridge tournament (a global tournament among Google employees).

You are South holding JT8xxxx, AQx, AKx and open 1H after RHO passes as dealer. You hear partner bid 3H (10-12 limit raise with 4).  What will you bid?

Say you just somehow end up in 6H.


LHO leads the CT and you see:

IMPS E/W	Dummy ♠ AT32 ♥ A974 ♦ 865 ♣ QJ
	You ♠ - ♥ JT86532 ♦ AQ7 ♣ AK2

Contract:6H

First Lead: ♣T

How will you play?










The problem will be if hearts don't split and DK is offside. You can cater to some of that via an end play.

Win the club in dummy, cash SA throwing a diamond, and ruff a spade (key play).

Now play a heart to the A. If trumps divide, you can take the diamond finesse for the overtrick. If RHO has the KQ, you have to rely on the diamond finesse.

If LHO has the trump KQ (as it was at the table) now you can still practically guarantee your contract. Ruff a spade to hand, cash the clubs throwing a spade and exit a heart. Now LHO has to play a diamond or give a ruffnsluff.

As fate would have it, LHO had the DK too, so this was a required play to make the slam.

This hand was bid and made by Wei-Bung Wang (who has played internationally for the Taiwain junior national team). The other table was only in 4H so making it was a huge swing (as compared to going down).

Wei-Bung bid 6H directly after the 3H and this is his reasoning:

I opened second hand. RHO didn’t open 2S, LHO didn’t overcall 1S. Partner rates to have some spades. If he has 5-4-2-2 and no strength at all, the slam is still 26%. There’s no scientific way to stop at 4-level. There’s also no scientific way to reach grand slam.

Defensive 4H

In an IMP team game, you are East and hold x, AQx, QJxxx, Kxxx

(If you need to know what an x is, assume lowest spots).

Your partner is dealer and opens 2S , RHO bids 3C, you pass, LHO bids 4H which ends the auction.

Partner leads the SK and yoy see:

IMPS None	Dummy ♠ Axx ♥ x ♦ Axxx ♣ AQJ9x
		You ♠ x ♥ AQx ♦ QJxxx ♣ Kxxx

W	N	E	S
2S	3C	P	4H
P	P	P

Declarer wins the SA, cashes DA throwing a spade and plays a heart.

What is your plan?









If you go up with the HA, you get 2 hearts and a club, but that is all. Declarer can easily discard the last spade loser on clubs.


You must hope partner has Jx or Tx of hearts and play the Q!

Imagine you are declarer with KJ9xxxx  and see the Q show up. You could try winning the K and play low to cater to AQ with RHO. If declarer ducks and it is indeed AQ tight, RHO could maneuver a club ruff for partner.

Declarer could still get it right, but has to guess. If declarer guessess wrong, partner will get in with a heart to cash his spade. You now get 2 hearts, 1 spade and 1 club to beat the contract. If declarer guesses right you have just let them make an overtrick.


At MPs this is harder and going up with the A to guarantee the second heart trick is probably the percentage play.

Integer polynomial property

$P$ is a polynomial with integer coefficients. Show that if $a$ is an integer such that

$$ P(P(P(a))) = a$$

then

$$ P(a) = a$$


Solution Sketch:


This uses the fact that $P(x) - P(y)$ is divisible by $x - y$ to get a cyclic chain of divisibility conditions implying each one in the chain is $\pm1$ times the others. Some assumptions like $P(a) \gt a$ etc lead to contradictions.