Finally added some solutions to the problems by updating the problem post itself.
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Finally added some solutions to the problems by updating the problem post itself.
If there are any missing which you would like to see, please comment on the problem post.
Simplify
$$ \frac{\sqrt{10 + \sqrt{1}} + \sqrt{10 + \sqrt{2}} + \dots + \sqrt{10 + \sqrt{99}}}{\sqrt{10 - \sqrt{1}} + \sqrt{10 - \sqrt{2}} + \dots + \sqrt{10 - \sqrt{99}}}$$
Scroll down for simplified form and solution.
The expression is equal to $\sqrt{2} + 1$. Surprising!
Scroll down for solution.
Let $a + b $ = 100.
Now
$$\sqrt{10 - \sqrt{a}} \sqrt{10 + \sqrt{a}} = \sqrt{100 - a} = \sqrt{b}$$
Let $u = \sqrt{10 + \sqrt{a}}$ and $v = \sqrt{10 - \sqrt{a}}$
So $20 = u^2 + v^2$
and $\sqrt{b} = uv$
Thus
$$\sqrt{20 + 2\sqrt{b}} = \sqrt{u^2 + v^2 + 2uv} = u+v$$
Similarly
$$\sqrt{20 - 2\sqrt{b}} = \sqrt{u^2 + v^2 - 2uv} = u-v$$
Let $c \gt 0$ be a real number and $a_n$ be a sequence such that $a_0 = 1$ and $$a_{n+1} = a_n + e^{-c a_n}$$
Show that
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} (ca_n - \log n) = \log c$$
($\log$ is $\log$ to base $e$)
The Putnam problem was with $c = 1$ and only asked for proof of existence of the limit.
Scroll down for a solution.
Consider $b_n = e^{a_n}$ then we get that $b_{0} = e$ and
$$ b_{n+1} = b_n e^{1/(b_n)^c}$$
We can easily show that $a_n$ is unbounded (proof by contradiction) and so is $b_n$ and thus $\frac{1}{b_{n}^c} \to 0$.
The recurrence for $a_n$ gives us
$$b_{n+1}^c = b_{n}^c e^{c/(b_n)^c}$$
Expanding the $e^{\dots}$ part we get
$$b_{n+1}^c = b_{n}^c ( 1 + \frac{c}{b_{n}^c} + O\left(\frac{1}{b_{n}^{2c}}\right)) = b_{n}^c + c + O\left(\frac{1}{b_{n}^c}\right)$$
This telescopes to give us
$$b_{n}^c - b_{0}^c = nc + \sum_{k=0}^{n} O\left(\frac{1}{b_{k}^c}\right)$$
And so
$$\frac{b_{n}^c - b_{0}^c}{n} = c + \frac{\sum_{k=0}^{n} O\left(\frac{1}{b_{k}^c}\right)}{n}$$
Thus
$$ \frac{b_{n}^c}{n} \to c$$
Taking logarithms gives the result.
In the image above, ABCD is a square, and BX = DY, X lying on BC, and Y on CD extended.
P is the intersection point of the diagonal BD and XY.
Show that PY = PX.
(Diagram not to scale!)
Try using pure geometric methods only.
Solution diagram below:
Define $S_n$ as follows
$$ S_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} n^{\frac{1}{k}}$$
For eg
$$S_{10} = 10 + 10^{1/2} + 10^{1/3} + \dots + 10^{1/10} \approx 25.4211$$
Find
$$ \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{S_n}{n} $$
Scroll down for a solution.
We will solve this using the arithmetic mean geometric mean inequality!
For $k \ge 2$ let $$x_1 = x_2 = \dots = x_{k-2} = 1, x_{k-1} = x_k = \sqrt{n}$$
Applying AM GM to these we get
$$\frac{k-2 + 2\sqrt{n}}{k} \ge n^{1/k} \ge 1$$
Thus
$$1 - \frac{2}{k} + 2 \frac{\sqrt{n}}{k} \ge n^{1/k} \ge 1$$
Now $\sum_{k=2}^{n} \frac{1}{k} = \log n + O(1)$
Thus
$$ n-1 - 2(\log n + O(1)) + 2\sqrt{n}(\log n + O(1)) \ge \sum_{k=2}^n n^{1/k} \ge n-1$$
And so
$$ 2n-1 - 2(\log n + O(1)) + 2\sqrt{n}(\log n + O(1)) \ge \sum_{k=1}^n n^{1/k} \ge 2n-1$$
Thus
$$ 2 + O\left(\frac{\log n}{\sqrt{n}}\right) \ge \frac{S_n}{n} \ge 2 + O\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)$$
Thus $$ \frac{S_n}{n} \to 2$$
$P(x)$ is a $4^{th}$ degree polynomial with real coefficients that satisfies
$$P(x) \ge x \quad \forall x \in R$$
$$P(1) = 1, P(2) = 4, P(3) = 3$$
Find the value of $P(4)$.
Scroll down for a solution.
Let $H(x) = P(x) - x$ and so $H(x) \ge 0 \forall x \in R$. Since $H(1) = H(3) = 0$, $H(x)$ has at least two distinct roots.
Now if there was a root of $H$ different from $1$ or $3$, then we can show that $H(c) < 0 $ for some $c \in R$. If the multiplicity of $1$ of $3$ was odd, then we can again show that $H(c) < 0$ for some $c$.
Thus we must have that
$$H(x) = A(x-1)^2(x-3)^2, A > 0$$
Since $H(2) = P(2) - 2 = 2$, we get $A = 2$.
This gives $P(4) = H(4) + 4 = 2.3^2.1^2 + 4 = 22$.
Let $d_n$ be the least common multiple of $1,2, \dots, n$.
Show that
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{d_n}$$
is an irrational number.
Scroll down for a solution.
Observation 1: If $n+1$ is a power of a prime $q$, then $d_{n+1} = q d_n$, otherwise $d_{n+1} = d_n$.
Observation 2:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{a_k - 1}{a_1 a_2 \dots a_k} = 1 - \frac{1}{a_1 a_2 \dots a_n}$$
(Proof left to reader).
Let the primes in order be $p_1, p_2, \dots$.
Pick an arbitrary prime $p = p_m$ and consider for $n \ge p$
$$f_n = \frac{d_{n}}{d_{p-1}}$$
The observation 1 above also holds for $f_n$.
Note that $f_{p_j} \ge p_m p_{m+1} \dots p_{j}$ and that the inequality is strict for infinitely many $p_j$.
Now consider $$ \sum_{p_i \le k < p_{i+1}} \frac{1}{f_k}$$
By Bertrands' theorem of a prime between $n$ and $2n$ we have that $p_{i+1} < 2p_i$
and thus
$$ \sum_{p_i \le k < p_{i+1}} \frac{1}{f_k} \le \frac{p_{i+1} - p_i}{f_{p_{i}}} \le \frac{p_i - 1}{f_{p_{i}}}$$
Since $f_{p_j} \ge p_m p_{m+1} \dots p_{j}$ we get
$$ \sum_{p_i \le k < p_{i+1}} \frac{1}{f_k} \le \frac{p_i - 1}{p_m p_{m+1} \dots p_i}$$
And so (note inequality is strict, because $f_{p_j} \gt p_m p_{m+1} \dots p_{j}$ infinitely often.)
$$\sum_{n \ge p} \frac{1}{f_n} < \sum_{j \ge m} \frac{p_j - 1}{p_m \dots p_j}$$
By Observation 2 above we get
$$\sum_{n \ge p} \frac{1}{f_n} < 1$$
Now if $$\frac{a}{b} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{d_n}$$
Pick a prime $p > b$ and consider $\frac{a d_{p-1}}{b}$ and use the above result about $f$.
$a,b,c$ are real numbers such that
$$a + b + c = 2022$$
and
$$\frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b} + \frac{1}{c} = \frac{1}{2022}$$
What are the possible values of
$$\frac{1}{a^{2023}} + \frac{1}{b^{2023}} + \frac{1}{c^{2023}} $$
Try to keep the algebraic manipulations to a minimum.
[Solution]