Monday, October 26, 2015

Inequality from UW challenge of the week [Solution]

The problem was here.

In brief

$x_i$ are $n$ real numbers such that

$$ \sum _{k=1}^{n} x_i = 0$$

$$ \sum_{k=1}^{n} x_i^2 = 1$$

Show that for some $i,j$,

$$ x_i x_j \le -\frac{1}{n}$$

Solution


The official solution is quite neat.

wlog, assume $x_1 \le x_2 \le \dots \le x_n$.

Now

$$ 0 \le \sum_{k=1}^n (x_k - x_1)(x_n - x_k) = -nx_1x_n - 1$$

(The equality is just gotten from expanding out and using the given identities).

The inequality now follows immediately.

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