Let an be a sequence such that
a1=a≥2
and
an+1=a2n−2
Show that
(1−1a1)(1−1a2)⋯=∏n≥1(1−1an)=√a2−41+a
The putnam problem was with a=52
Scroll down for a solution.
Since a≥2, we can find a u≥1 such that a=u+1u (for a=52,u=2).
The case a=2,u=1 is easy, so assume u>1.
The recurrence then gives us
an+1=u2n+1u2n
Let f(x)=(1−1x+1x)=x2−x+1x2+1
The value we are seeking is
f(u)f(u2)f(u4)f(u8)…f(u2n)…
Now notice that
(x2−x+1)(x2+x+1)=(x2+1)2−x2=x4+x2+1
Thus if we multiply
(x2−x+1)(x4−x2+1)(x8−x4+1)…(x2n−x2n−1+1)
with x2+x+1 we get
(x2+x+1)(x2−x+1)(x4−x2+1)(x8−x4+1)…(x2n−x2n−1+1)=
(x4+x2+1)(x4−x2+1)…(x2n−x2n−1+1)=x2n+1+x2n+1
and similarly using
(x2−1)(x2+1)=x4−1
we get
(x2−1)(x2+1)(x4+1)…(x2n+1)=x2n+1−1
Since
x2n+1+x2n+1x2n+1−1→1
(for x>1)
We see that
L=f(u)f(u2)…f(u2n)⋯=u2−1u2+u+1
This we can rewrite as
L=u−1uu+1u+1
Squaring gives
L2=u2+1u2−2(a+1)2=a2−4(a+1)2
Thus
L=√a2−4a+1
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