This is a solution to the unit fraction chord length puzzle.
A brief description:
Any continuous function f:[0,1]→R such that f(0)=f(1), has a chord of length 1n where n is a positive integer.
Any other chord length (non unit fraction lengths) have functions which don't have those chord lengths.
Solution
Let g(x)=f(x)−f(x+1n).
Then we have that
g(0)+g(1/n)+⋯+g((n−1)/n)=f(0)−f(1)=0
Thus if g(k/n)≠0, then there are some i,j such that g(i/n)<0 and g(j/n)>0, and thus by the mean value theorem, some point c where g(c)=0.
For the other part, given any non unit fraction r, the function
fr(x)=sin2(πxr)−xsin2(πr)
is a counter-example.
This result is apparently called the Universal Chord Theorem.
A brief description:
Any continuous function f:[0,1]→R such that f(0)=f(1), has a chord of length 1n where n is a positive integer.
Any other chord length (non unit fraction lengths) have functions which don't have those chord lengths.
Solution
Let g(x)=f(x)−f(x+1n).
Then we have that
g(0)+g(1/n)+⋯+g((n−1)/n)=f(0)−f(1)=0
Thus if g(k/n)≠0, then there are some i,j such that g(i/n)<0 and g(j/n)>0, and thus by the mean value theorem, some point c where g(c)=0.
For the other part, given any non unit fraction r, the function
fr(x)=sin2(πxr)−xsin2(πr)
is a counter-example.
This result is apparently called the Universal Chord Theorem.
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